"But whoso committeth adultery with a woman lacketh
he that doeth it destroyeth his own soul" (Proverbs 6:32).
"Because they have committed villany in Israel,
and have committed
adultery with their neighbours' wives, and have spoken lying words in my
name, which I have not commanded them; even I know, and am a witness, saith the LORD" (Jeremiah 29:23).
2) Those "having eyes full of adultery" were in the
Matthew 5:28 category (2
Peter 2:14). This "adultery" was sexual.
3) Jesus said He would cast the false prophetess Jezebel,
"into a bed, and
them that commit adultery with her into great tribulation, except they
repent of their deeds" (Rev. 2:22). This figurative use of the word
"adultery" only makes sense if one understands the literal meaning of the
word to be sexual.
4) Like Revelation 2:22, Hebrews
13:4 equates the defiling of "the
bed"(sexuality) with "adultery." The word "adultery" in this passage is
obviously has a sexual meaning.
5) The woman who was "taken in the very act of adultery"
was not taken in
the very act of divorcing her husband! (John 8:3-4).
Efforts by some to argue that adultery is only
that which one commits against his spouse is pure nonsense. These
deceivers rely upon the wording of Mark 10:11 to make their argument. They
assume that just because Jesus said the adultery was "against" the present
mate, that it can't involve an ongoing sexual relationship with
someone else. Why would they want to prove such a position?
Simply to allow fellowship with those who are in, what the Bible calls,
an unlawful relationship (Mark 6:17). According to this theory,
repentance does not require separation from the new mate, it only requires
an apology for the unscriptural divorce and a committment to not divorce
again. This would be comparable to a bank robber "repenting" of his
sin, but keeping the stolen money!